Ahmed,
When I said 'not to be rude', I meant that it was my hope you would not think I was being rude by raising the question. I certainly did not intend for you to think you had been rude. My apologies.
I think you have not understood my question.
A) the number 2 was not being written that way at the beginning of the 15th century in Europe. What evidence have you got that in Turkey it was being written in its modern form?
B) for your theory of 2 as shorthand (ie like 2U for 'to you'), what words does two sound like in Turkish of the era?
Your runes come from the Celts.
See Celtic history.
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Hello Ahmet!
I tried to see the words for the numbers in the manuscript on your site, but I couldn't. If it exists, can you please give the exact link? Your site is not easy to navigate. It is possible that you have mentioned it in this thread, but due to the large number of pages I am easily lost, sorry.
(16-04-2022, 08:59 AM)Aga Tentakulus Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.[Your runes come from the Celts.
See Celtic history.]
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Runic signs are seen all over Europe and Asia, on the islands of the Mediterranean, and as far as the Americas and Australia.
During the archaeological excavations in Cyprus, some objects and items were found that are assumed to be between 2500 and 3000 years old. The writings on these parts were read in Turkish by researcher linguist Mehmet Turgay Kürüm. Glozel, Celts & Scandinavian Runes and many others in Europe were also read in Turkic only, but not any other European languages.
Runic inscriptions roots have been evolved from the tamga signs of nomads. Tatars, Scythians, Etruscans etc. spread them all over Europe. We know how these signs evolved. Celts people used them. The Vikings also used the different format. However, it is fact that the forms of the signs in the language in which they were created show semantically linguilineal-overlapse.
Today, the naming based on which geography they originated in is wrong. For example, there are no such ancient Runic scripts that could be read and proven to be read in the Celtic language. These are erroneous or inaccurate attributions.
The autonkton peoples of Europe were not peoples speaking the Indo-European language group. These were peoples speaking Turkic languages such as Tatars. They were mostly destroyed by using genocide thousands of years ago. In other words, the worst of the persecution and genocide of the Europeans on the Native Americans in the Americas had happened before in Europe.
Stick to the facts.
The 1970 statement is outdated and not true.
Erkruskers are Europeans. More precisely, they are northern Italians.
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I am beginning to suspect that you are trying to justify your theory about the history of 4000 years and by scraping together words from all over the Near East.
There is no connection between VM and Turkish, and yes, the Europeans came from the East 40,000 years ago. But that's probably not it.
I think you've got yourself into something too, and you're stuck.
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(16-04-2022, 12:49 PM)Aga Tentakulus Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.Stick to the facts.
The 1970 statement is outdated and not true.
Erkruskers are Europeans. More precisely, they are northern Italians.
You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.
I am beginning to suspect that you are trying to justify your theory about the history of 4000 years and by scraping together words from all over the Near East.
There is no connection between VM and Turkish, and yes, the Europeans came from the East 40,000 years ago. But that's probably not it.
I think you've got yourself into something too, and you're stuck.
I agree with you on your general point about where this is all going (and where it's coming from), but since the other thread on this issue included a lengthy diatribe that we Europeans are going around "claiming" languages, I just wanted to flag that the Etruscan language is unlikely to be Indo-European.
Very little is known about Etruscan's origin. We can read its words aloud because it uses an earlier version of the alphabet. We even know the meaning of a small range of words thanks to comparative texts. While the range is very small due to paucity of Etruscan texts, the words show enough differences with the various branches of Indo-European for the general consensus amongst linguists to be that Etruscan is probably not an Indo-European language.
But the range is also too small for any respectable theory connecting it to another big language family. There are no grounds for saying Etruscan is Turkic or indeed part of any big language family. It is doubtful that we will ever know what family it belonged to. There simply isn't enough linguistic material to do a proper comparison. Any such theories are just fringe theories.
In terms of the Etruscan people (worth noting that language origin doesn't always correlate with genetic origin, even if it seems likely), there have been theories about where they came from for millennia. The standard two alternatives seem to be that they had been indigenous to the area for a long time, or they migrated from the Near East, which was not Turkic at the time. It seems every few years there's a new DNA analysis of corpses or cattle arguing one or the other.
I don't need any more proof of that. You have just brought it.
You are just trying to justify your language theory with a migration from the Bronze Age 4000 years ago. But it doesn't work like that. It still has no connection to the VM.