(15-06-2026, 08:40 PM)rikforto Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.I have a lot to say about your most recent response to me, but the summary is not very hard to state: Morpheme readings are constructed to be cognate, but they may not represent lexical correspondence in translation. Let's unpack that.
Sorry, but I still don't understand your point -- and I believe that you don't understand the scenario that I am proposing.
The discussion about differences between the dialects is irrelevant, because scenario involves only
one written language -- the text of SBJ as quoted and marked out in the ZHB -- and
one spoken language -- the local language, that the Author learned, to some extent, during his stay.
The Dictator knows the local language and can read the written one. The Author can't read or write the written one.
The Author recruited the Dictator to read aloud the text
using words of the local language. It would be futile to read it using words from any other language. The author is recording the dictation phonetically, instead of just buying a copy of the printed book, because he want to understand what he wrote, as much as his knowledge or the local language will allow, after he goes back to Europe. Obviously that goal would be frustrated if the Dictator read it using words from some other language.
So there are two possibilities. (A) The dictation could have been literal, with the Dictator reading the each hanzi as a syllable of the local language, in the order that it is on the book. Or (B) he could have dictated a translation into the local language; that is, he said what a local doctor would say to convey the same information to a local peasant, without reading from a book. This second option is actually a spectrum, from merely replacing some compounds or reversing the order of a few words, to completely changing the word order, inserting glosses, using paraphrases, etc.
The evidence I have says that that what the Dictator did was either (A) or very close to it. The spacings between the cribs are usually very precise, at ~5 EVA letters for each hanzi of the ZHB text. That is, the text of the rooster recipe began
丹雄鸡味甘微温主女人崩中漏下...
(I am using simplified characters because the traditional ones are much harder for me to recognize. This does not make any difference, agreed? It is just a change of font.)
Let's pretend that the local dialect was modern Cantonese. In the proposed scenario, what the Dictator would have said loud would have been
daan1 hung4 gai1 mei6 gam1 mei4 wan1 zyu2 neoi5 jan4 bang1 zung1 lau6 haa6 ...
And these would be the
sounds that the Author would write down in his phonetic script.
According to Google AI, most of those
spoken syllables are common words that would be recognized and understood by "every" Cantonese speaker -- even though some of the compounds, like bang1 zung1 = 崩中 = "crashing center", have technical meanings that only a doctor may understand correctly. GAI says that the only syllable that few people would understand correctly is daan1 = 丹 = "vermilion".
So presumably the Author would would have understood many of those
spoken syllables too. Heve if he did not know the meaning of daan1, he probably would have understood that the recipe was about some type of "male chicken", that it was "sweet" and "slightly warm", that the main indications came next, that the first few are specific to women, that the first of those was something something dripping down, etc.
The syntax and word order would not be those of colloquial Cantonese, but that is mostly due to the text being (at the time) 1700 years old and intentionally very terse -- not because it was written by someone who spoke another dialect.
That literal one-syllable-for-one-hanzi would have been almost as good as the Author could possibly get. If the Dictator had tried to give a translation into colloquial Cantonese, I don't think he would have understood much more.
So, please explain again, what are your objections to this scenario?
Quote:If I've traced the etymologies correctly, the Italian cognate of "il" is "il", while "pas" corresponds to "passo". Even though it is not the preferred Italian, "Il non mi piace passo de tutto," is the way to do this kind of reading.
No, sorry, it makes no sense to consider etymologies in a translation, in any situation. In a free translation one expresses the meaning of the source phrase in the target language, using whatever words and syntax a native speaker would use. In a literal word-by-word translation one uses the word of the target language whose
current meaning best matches the
current meaning of the source word.
Thus the Italian word whose meaning is closest to that of the French word "pas" in that phrase ("nothing") is "niente". Not "passo", not at all.
Quote:There's an important consideration in the previous example. I realize you have edited the SBJ to remove 甘 because it did not yield a crib, but otherwise the formulaic way that 甘 appears and its technical meaning are the kind of thing I can imagine him learning, and the Dictator teaching.
Not simply "because it did not yield a crib". Rather the length of the text before the first daiin in the SPS matches the length of the SBJ text before the first 主 at the usual 5:1 ratio only if the "flavor and warmth" field is omitted from the latter; and this has been the rule for all recipes that I have matched, not just for the "rooster".
This omission makes sense because that field is meaningful only within Traditional Chinese medical theory. The "flavor" is not actual flavor, but a "theoretical" flavor that is supposed to have implications for the remedy's effect. And in this recipe there is only one "flavor" field for all sub-recipes, that include chicken poo, chicken feathers, chicken eggs, and grubs that grow in chicken coops. Obviously that "sweet" is not really about taste...
So, either the Author asked the Dictator to skip that field (presumably after the Dictator explained its meaning, or lack thereof); or the Author later realized that those fields were useless in Europe, and struck them from his draft before giving it to the Scribe. Either way, he apparently did the same, systematically, with "also called" fields, "grows in" fields, and superstitious/religious comments like that one about "heads of chickens that were hung over the East Gate".
Quote:Because most of the words in the descendent languages were cognates with the Classical language.
I still think you are confused here. Classical Chinese is not a spoken language, it is a written one. The Chinese "dialects" do not descend from it. You should have said "Proto-Sino-Tibetan" or "Old Chinese" or something like that.
Quote:I do not think the identification is sound and the statistical argument you've made is based on cribs you identified because there were qualitative similarities. It is no surprise to me that there were able to quantify that, but I don't think its a valid or sound identification.
The initial guess that the SPS could be the SBJ, the identification of cribs, and my claim that this is now a proved fact, were all based on
quantitative coincidences. Nothing qualitative. if you don't accept that evidence -- well, I cannot force you to...
Quote:It is quite unfortunate that my source terms these "dialectical synonyms". This is commonly seen, even in academic contexts, and I have curbed my impulse to be pedantic when other people have indulged it, but as they fail the mutual intelligibility test, they are properly called "languages".
The Chinese "dialects" are indeed mutually unintelligible, but that is mostly because corresponding words (syllables with the same meaning and hanzi) SOUND very different in each language, in a non-systematic way. Not because of differences in grammar!
I don't speak Chinese, but I have been reading about the linguistic situation in China and other countries for more than 50 years.
You are the first source I have seen to claim that, if each hanzi in a Beijing newspaper article is read in Cantonese, the result would be, not only grossly ungrammatical, but incomprehensible to a Cantonese speaker. So that a Cantonese speaker who can't speak Mandarin would be unable to read that article.
The insistence of the Mainland Chinese government on calling the various languages of China "dialects" is politically motivated, sure. They don't want to see separatist movements (like those that keep arising in Italy, Spain, France, Belgium...). But that gov has reason in part: because those languages, while mutually unintelligible when spoken, are substantially the same in writing. Thus they are not "different languages" in the same sense that English and German are different languages (= unintelligible both in speech
and in writing).
This situation is unique in the world, and is made possible by the fact that the writing system is effectively not phonetic at all. And, in turn, this feature of the writing system kept the
grammar of those languages pretty similar over the centuries -- even though the spoken languages changed and diverged like crazy.
All the best, --stolfi