07-06-2026, 06:58 PM
So the theory is that word boundaries don’t show where words are (YES), and if you eliminate word boundaries, then you can encode slots with vowels and consonants. Do you encode the same vowels and consonants every time? If so then it’s still substitution.
No: C1 is a substitution, the Vokal Bridge is homophone, C2 ist nearly Polyphone, something between homophon and polyphon - every slot has its one Code.
Just adding an extra few symbols- the space between the words? Or am I wrong about that?
No, it's a completely different system, with bigrams, trigrams, and single glyphs. LSM / LEM, etc.
And do the vowels and consents follow Slot grammar? No, it has it one grammar.
How does that encode? i still dont know yet
And does the theory necessitate Bavarian language. No, but it seems to be Bavarian/FHND
No: C1 is a substitution, the Vokal Bridge is homophone, C2 ist nearly Polyphone, something between homophon and polyphon - every slot has its one Code.
Just adding an extra few symbols- the space between the words? Or am I wrong about that?
No, it's a completely different system, with bigrams, trigrams, and single glyphs. LSM / LEM, etc.
And do the vowels and consents follow Slot grammar? No, it has it one grammar.
How does that encode? i still dont know yet
And does the theory necessitate Bavarian language. No, but it seems to be Bavarian/FHND