11-10-2019, 07:43 AM
I suppose I have undestood your question now and I can say there are 'dialects' in this sense in post-Clasical Latin. If you discount writers who have not mastered the basics of grammar, you see differences, especially in vocabulary, but in grammar as well. Basically, writers follow the structure of their own language, you can decide in many cases if e.g. a French or German speaker has written a Latin text, that is especially true for late Medieval or early Modern texts. It is like contemporary IT manuals written in English, even if it is correct English, you can usually decide if a native speaker, or someone German or French has written the text


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