geoffreycaveney's Judaeo-Greek theory

[ChenZheChina]

(continued)

I’ll go on from where I dropped last time. The next concern I have is:

2. Inconsistency in writing the same word into Voynich letters.

I don’t know if you have answered this question somewhere else, so you can just give me the link to the answer if you have done.

The question arises in the first line of You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view., where the same Greek word είπαν (eípan) appear twice:

first three lines of You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view. 1 in the Voynich ms text:

[t]eeodaiin  shey  epairody  osaiin  yteeoey  shey  epaiin  oaiin
daiir  okeody  qoekeeg  sar  oeteody  oteey  keey  key  keeodal
ycheo  s oeeg  cheos aiin  okesoe  aram  shees  dalaiin  dam

my Judaeo-Greek interpretation of this text:

[]ei[A]pan  tis  ipeirous  otan  skiiAis  tis  ,  epan  oAn
par'  Atous  &Atees  tAr(a)  oikous  o(u)k-eis(i)  tees  ,  tis  t-ei[A]pAs
shio  t-Aees  heAt-an  Atitoi  AlAs  ,  deit  vasAn  ,  fAs

Now "normalizing" this Judaeo-Greek text into a more standard Greek form:

eipan  tis  ipeirous  otan  skiais  tis  ,  eipan  oun
para  autous  &  autes  tora  oikous  ouk  eisi  tes  ,  tis  t'-eipes
sou  tes  etan  auttoi  aules  ,  deite [te] vasein  ,  phes

For me, it would be natural to expect the same word to appear in the same form, because when we read, we do not read each word letter-by-letter, but You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.. The two words that you interpreted as είπαν are written in Voynichese as eeodaiin and epaiin, respectively.

They look quite different to me, especially the fact that the same Greek letter π (p) are written in Voynichese as d and p, respectively. It is hard for me to believe that they are the same word. I’d like to see an explanation here.

(to be continued…)