geoffreycaveney's Judaeo-Greek theory

[davidjackson]

But is it really different for Greek? I don't see why a partial abjad would work for Greek but not for Spanish.

Greek, of course, famously being the first ancient script to force the inclusion of vowels because the ambiguity of an abjad made it unworkable for their language.

That's not to say that the Voynich isn't an abjad. An often understated point when discussing this is that to have a pure abjad, you need very strict lexemes and word structure. Arabic, for example, mainly being constructed of three consonant roots which can then be expanded as needed.