geoffreycaveney's Judaeo-Greek theory

[ReneZ]

It is just like Koen said in another thread: "One of the very few ways I can imagine the VM text containing meaning is if a language were somehow made phonetically poorer, the phoneme inventory flattened. Similar sounds merged."

Is that, because it would have been a sensible thing to do in the early 15th Century, or is it, because it is a practical way of making more sense out of the MS text?

Another comment, though this is nothing I would apply too strictly.

I have seen quite a few tentative translations of the first line of the MS now.

How nice would it have been if any of these were something like this:

"here begins the book of..."

or just:

"book of ..."

Unfortunately, every single one, and this includes the present proposal, is something that seems like the middle of some dialogue.