Judaeo-Greek reading of first three lines of f67r 1
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(21-03-2019, 07:24 AM)-JKP- wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.
(20-03-2019, 09:56 PM)davidjackson wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.
geoffrey wrote:There is no explicit rule you can establish to determine when to convert "cuz" into "because", as opposed to when to convert "cuz" into "cousin". The decision must be based on the overall linguistic context of the statement and the conversation.

Yes there is. If the word is used as a conjunction, it's because. If it is used as a noun, it's cousin. End of.

I think that's what Geoffrey said, isn't it? When he wrote, "The decision must be based on the overall linguistic context of the statement and the conversation," I think he was saying you need context to know if it's a conjunction or a noun.

Yes, that is indeed what I meant. In general I do agree with David's points; modern social media English "cuz" was just one example, and I do not mean to imply that the Voynich ms text is written with such words, in any language. Probably my Chaucer example is a much better one, much more relevant to the topic at hand.

And yes, when I was referring to explicit rules, it was in the context of mathematical or orthographic rules that you can apply to the letters of words and texts to analyze them statistically, such as the entropy values, conditional entropy, character pair distribution, etc., etc., that we discuss so often in relation to the Voynich ms text. Likewise, in reference to explicit rules to convert a proposed interpretation form of a text (such as my Judaeo-Greek reading of the ms) into a model standardized form of a language. 

My point is, if Chaucer or other Middle English writers could use at least 8 different forms to write "swete", "soote", etc., and Chaucer himself actually used only the 8th most common form of the word, then I can argue likewise that the Voynich ms author could have used word forms that may display a wide variety of discrepancies from any existing or extant forms of words in the same language. The discrepancies in, for example, [eeodaiin], [epaiin], and [cheodaiin] (all of which I interpret as the Greek verb form "eipan", meaning "they said") are actually no greater than the discrepancies in Middle English "soote", "swoote", "swete", "suete", "sweete", "swote", "swoote", "swoot", "sote".


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RE: Judaeo-Greek reading of first three lines of f67r 1 - by geoffreycaveney - 21-03-2019, 02:39 PM

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