geoffreycaveney's Judaeo-Greek theory

[geoffreycaveney]

The fourth step of Geoffrey's translation, where he tries to make sense of the set of Greek words that he picked as similar to his mapping of Voynichese, states that "eipan oun" means "as they said". I don't know Greek, so looking into his translation is about as difficult for me as working with Yokubinas' translation based on Hebrew.

Marco, I will reply to your entire post about the use of the phrase "eipan oun" in Greek as soon as I can, in as much detail as I can. I appreciate your research, but I do not accept the argument that just because one phrase appears to be in the wrong place in the sentence, that the entire interpretation can be dismissed as "proven wrong". 
For example, let us say that 600 years from now, a 27th century researcher comes across a sentence of 21st century handwritten text. It is hard to make out, but with great effort the researcher is able to read it to say:
"It is time for me to leave therefore." 
Now I can confirm that this sentence is *not* grammatical English. The word "therefore" should be placed at the beginning of the sentence, perhaps between "is" and "time", but certainly not at the end.
But should the 27th century researcher on this basis conclude that the 21st century text is not written in English at all? I dare say that would be a drastic and extreme conclusion to jump to, and hardly justified.
Likewise, just because "eipan oun" may appear to be placed in the wrong position in the sentence, is not a sufficient reason to reject the entire interpretation of the line as Greek out of hand.

Now about the comparison of my work to Yokubinas' "Hebrew translation": I happen to know this work, since I have researched the topic of the Voynich ms and the Hebrew script, both from the perspective of the Hebrew language and from the perspective of Judaeo-Greek or other European languages written in the Hebrew script.

Let me share with everyone an example of how Yokubinas' Hebrew translation goes. This example is Yokubinas' own example to illustrate her own method, from the very first page of her document:

" 'spquzr' is "spq" means entrance + "zr" means to vex awake, hence the word East"

Come on. She is jamming together "entrance"+"to vex awake" and claiming the whole compound just means "East" !!

Marco, let's be fair here: Is my interpretation of the Greek line of text here anything like this method at all?? Of course not. You know it's not.

So please do not lump my work together with the likes of Yokubinas and many others like her.