geoffreycaveney's Judaeo-Greek theory

[geoffreycaveney]

One problem comes to my mind immediately: "pan" is a prefix, it cannot go behind the root word - that's ungrammatical nonsense. 

According to wiktionary, it's only a suffix in Nahuatl, which is funny in its own way.

A couple possible explanations:

1) The word break in the ms text could be in the wrong place, either accidentally or deliberately, and the phrase could be "geio (read "gaia") pantes ipeirous" = "Earth (and) all the continents". The case and gender of "pantes" and "ipeirous" do not exactly match, but we have to remember the early 15th century was very late Byzantine Greek, it would have been different from Ancient Greek, different from Koine Greek, and different from Modern Greek. Or the 15th century author could have made a slight grammatical mistake in the case and gender of the Greek.

2) The word "geio-pan" could be word play in Greek, along the lines of the popular French word play game "Verlan", in which the syllables of words are inverted.

Actually, if there is systematic rearrangement of syllables in the Voynich ms text, that could explain a lot of things.