Can VM be written in vowelless Latin?
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Farmerjohn,

I tried to understand your table 2, with the aim of figuring out the following question:

how would the person composing the Voynich MS have used it in order to convert his Latin text to Voynichese?
Basically, I am looking for the inverted version of your table.

It is not really clear to me whether this is even possible.

Would you be able to show how the author of the MS would have converted any piece of regular Latin into Voynichese?
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RE: Can VM be written in vowelless Latin? - by ReneZ - 20-10-2017, 06:52 PM

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