08-06-2017, 01:34 PM
Left-handed-ness is the obvious explanation, but I recall that it was discussed and rejected in the past. I completely forgot the argumentation, but I remember that I considered it reasonable. I can add that since lefthanders are a minotity, it's not very probable that both A and B were lefthanders.
The inclination may be intended to follow some (invisible) markup or may obey principles of some device utilized (if any). I remember seeing a suggested markup of a Voynich folio on the internet featuring diagonal lines from top left to bottom right. I don't remember who posted it and what s/he meant. But it's not a bad idea that if such markup does mean anything for the structure of the text, then "i" might follow it.
But returning to the idea of my title post, I suggest that the "i" shape may have been borrowed "as is" from some other context, so the question is - whence?
The inclination may be intended to follow some (invisible) markup or may obey principles of some device utilized (if any). I remember seeing a suggested markup of a Voynich folio on the internet featuring diagonal lines from top left to bottom right. I don't remember who posted it and what s/he meant. But it's not a bad idea that if such markup does mean anything for the structure of the text, then "i" might follow it.
But returning to the idea of my title post, I suggest that the "i" shape may have been borrowed "as is" from some other context, so the question is - whence?