12-05-2021, 01:09 AM
There's a lot of questions one could ask here, not least about the farts galore. But I'll start with a basic one. What was the methodology for arriving at the theorized correspondences, especially the "backwards ones"?
It may be contained earlier in this thread, but in the word doc I see nothing about the methodology. You have worked through 10 lines, and the odd word here and there. These 10 lines are not sufficient to establish such correspondences, especially the "backwards ones". Looking quickly, I see only 3 or 4 examples of the b-reversal in those 10 lines, and one apparent example where a b wasn't reversed ("si-sib"). I can't see any clear examples of y/th being reversed in them.
So: what data and method did you use to arrive at these conclusions? Did you take a sample of words ending in *m across the manuscript? How many? What ratio of them made clear Middle English words when reversed? How many would still have made clear Middle English words in their unreversed form? What is the rule for deciding not to reverse, e.g. si-sib?
If those ten lines are the bulk of the sample, and the rationale for deciding to reverse is because doing so makes a Middle English word that could vaguely be connected to the Wars of the Roses, then I'm afraid the path of reasoning you are racing down is taking you round and round in circles.
It may be contained earlier in this thread, but in the word doc I see nothing about the methodology. You have worked through 10 lines, and the odd word here and there. These 10 lines are not sufficient to establish such correspondences, especially the "backwards ones". Looking quickly, I see only 3 or 4 examples of the b-reversal in those 10 lines, and one apparent example where a b wasn't reversed ("si-sib"). I can't see any clear examples of y/th being reversed in them.
So: what data and method did you use to arrive at these conclusions? Did you take a sample of words ending in *m across the manuscript? How many? What ratio of them made clear Middle English words when reversed? How many would still have made clear Middle English words in their unreversed form? What is the rule for deciding not to reverse, e.g. si-sib?
If those ten lines are the bulk of the sample, and the rationale for deciding to reverse is because doing so makes a Middle English word that could vaguely be connected to the Wars of the Roses, then I'm afraid the path of reasoning you are racing down is taking you round and round in circles.