F66r question

[Helmut Winkler]

@ Renegadehealer

To anyone's knowledge, does the equivalence y = ÿ = ij = ii = ī = 2 (in Roman numerals) extend beyond the Netherlands in the late Middle Ages?

There is literally no y at the time (and later), it is always ij, usually with dots (inluding the month names in the ms.) except in words coming from Greek. A good example is the German name for Bavaria, whih is Baijern until the 19th c., then it becomes Bayern