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[Helmut Winkler]

@ Helmut Winkler
We're getting closer, but it's still not exactly what I mean.
Assuming that pure Latin was a spoken language in the 400th century, there must also be Latin dialects. Same as in Italy, France, Germany.
How far has this spoken Latin changed in dialect since 400 to 1400, and how much of another language must be present before one can speak of another language?  If it can be assumed that at that time the writing was exactly the same as the speaking, then diversity becomes the real problem.

 It is a very complicated subject, but let me say this: In classical antiquiry, there  was written Latin and there was spoken Latin,  and there never was 'pure Latin', and there were lots of differences in  e.g. Cicero's time. Both these 'dialects' developed, written Latin developed into a kind of lingua franca, used by scholars in the widest sensspoken L. into the Romance dialects. At the same  time a spoken L. developed, used in certain in the widest sense clerical circles, e.g. monks, students and so on. I am ashamed of simplifying things so muchm but that is more or less the development