Now, I have a very interesting question which, I think, has never been discussed.
If a person writes "multo8" (this is not German, let's say it's Latin), would he, two lines below that, write the (German) "gas" with the long "s" (instead of 8)?
If he would not, that means one of the following:
1) The last line is put down by another person - not improbable, giving some differences in writing, but that would mean that "anchiton oladabas" already existed when someone proficient in Voynichese came up to add something about aror sheey and all that - and this is an interesting scenario indeed
2) The scribe is one and the same, but he blindly copied the "spell" from another source - this is my old idea, but this would mean that the learned guy fluent in German did not understand what he copied - i.e. did not understand Latin! Is that something that could happen in reality?
3) In the old debate, it's not "gas mich", but "gasmich", after all
If a person writes "multo8" (this is not German, let's say it's Latin), would he, two lines below that, write the (German) "gas" with the long "s" (instead of 8)?
If he would not, that means one of the following:
1) The last line is put down by another person - not improbable, giving some differences in writing, but that would mean that "anchiton oladabas" already existed when someone proficient in Voynichese came up to add something about aror sheey and all that - and this is an interesting scenario indeed
2) The scribe is one and the same, but he blindly copied the "spell" from another source - this is my old idea, but this would mean that the learned guy fluent in German did not understand what he copied - i.e. did not understand Latin! Is that something that could happen in reality?
3) In the old debate, it's not "gas mich", but "gasmich", after all