02-04-2019, 08:27 AM
I wouldn't call Middle Frysian inherently polyglot. It's a language in its own right, but because of where it sits in the family tree it shares properties with different languages.
Now English, that's a different story because it integrates a huge number of French roots into a Germanic system. Take your sentence, where I'll put non-Germanic words in bold:
Now if the language underlying the VM is had something similar happen to it as English after the year 1066, then it might be inherently polyglot, and it would not be strange to mix roots from two or three language families.
Even in such a case, I would expect some structure in the polyglot mess. For example, English retained most of its basic, everyday words, grammatical words, pronouns... From your sentence: I, it, be, this, some, are... Such basics are entirely missing from most (if not all) VM solutions.
Now English, that's a different story because it integrates a huge number of French roots into a Germanic system. Take your sentence, where I'll put non-Germanic words in bold:
Quote:I thought it might be worth discussing this subject because some languages are inherently polyglot.
Now if the language underlying the VM is had something similar happen to it as English after the year 1066, then it might be inherently polyglot, and it would not be strange to mix roots from two or three language families.
Even in such a case, I would expect some structure in the polyglot mess. For example, English retained most of its basic, everyday words, grammatical words, pronouns... From your sentence: I, it, be, this, some, are... Such basics are entirely missing from most (if not all) VM solutions.