Hi Lisa: I look forward to the opportunity to address your points, here. Of course I have had commented on your ideas during a few of your online Lectures, but having all your positons in one place make it possible for me to give my opinions on all of your theory's major claims.
Maybe someday it would be possible to have a formal debate, in person. I think it possible that some venue would be interested in this, as it would perhaps generate some publicity. A university, maybe? It think it could be fun and informative for people to hear the main side of this forgery/genuine issue. And yes of course you are correct that,
Quote:I know that there are those among you who will now respond point-by-point to make your increasingly-complicated case.
Although I always want to make my case, as you and others supporting the 1420 Genuine theory, I would reject the notion my particular theory is at all complicated, or getting "increasingly" so. Quite the opposite, my theory is dirt-simple: Voynich buys the Libreria in 1908, he has vast literary knowledge and source material stacked like walls around him. He is a chemist, he hangs with his spy-buddy, Rosenblum, another chemist. And, he has the time and desire to "get one over" on the bourgeois establishment, which he despises. Also, make some huge money. So, he sits down, probably with the help of some of his buddies at the Franceshini, and in the spare time he has for a couple of months, pens out a sloppy and atrocious pop-culture representation of what his imaginative mind thinks an early 17th century botanical might look like. Nothing complicated about it. No more than a Jackson Pollack, where we have the choice of over analyzing the "genius" that went into deciding the final form; or understanding that that form is a result of some pretty free-form and light hearted, whimsical decision making. In any case:
(02-02-2026, 02:48 PM)LisaFaginDavis Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.I have made the case for authenticity numerous times elsewhere in this forum, but there are some new folks in this thread who may not have seen my previous posts.
I have handled the Voynich Manuscript more than a dozen times. Over the course of the last 35 years, I have handled hundreds of other manuscripts, if not thousands. There is absolutely NOTHING about the materiality of the Voynich Manuscript that could possibly make anyone suspicious about its authenticity.
1) parchment is authentic 15th-century parchment. Yes, I know, that's doesn't prove anything: Voynich could have found piles of old, unused parchment...possible but unlikely.
Then, we agree that he could have "found piles of old, unused parchment". Actually the fact that you even write this reflects progress on my part, because for well over a decade, this was said to be "impossible". As for "unlikely", I disagree: Voynich bought the Libreria Franceshini in Florence in 1908, and in that repository was over 500,000 items of all types, materials, and qualities. It is plausible that he found his blank parchment there. But, old, blank parchment has been long available, even up and until modern times.
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Quote:2) inks and pigments do not have any of the chemical signatures one would expect in a modern forgery (such as, for example, traces of arsenic in the green pigment). I know the counter-argument: Voynich was a chemist and could have make the inks and pigments using authentic medieval recipes. Sure, that's possible. Here's my rebuttal: Why would he bother? The spectrometric x-ray-based testing done by McCrone in 2009 did not exist until the 1980s. Why would Voynich go to the trouble of crafting "authentic" ink and pigments when there was literally no way any of his clients could possibly have known the difference? And yes, I know that the McCrone findings include a few otherwise-insignificant outliers that they weren't able to easily explain, but none of these outliers raise suspicions about authenticity.
Yes, Voyich being a chemist is one of the (and my) arguments. Another is that his friend Sidney Rosenblum was, also, and took out a book on Medieval ink formulas from the library. And I see you agree "that's possible". But as for your rebuttal, "Why bother?"? I would rebut your rebuttal by saying, "why not?". A person does not have to imagine future tests in order to follow a recipe. I mean, if you mix the ingredients, and try to control what is in there, it would be a non issue. In this case, I think you would need oak galls and iron sulfate. I have some nice oak galls in a zip lock bag, and hope to use them. If I did, and made an ink out of them, in order to create a forgery, my only concern would be to do it fairly cleanly. I would know that doing so would have the best chance of passing for any iron gall ink, of any age, and I would not even have to worry about what tests there may be now, nor in the future. So whether or not he would worry his "clients would know the difference", or in the future something he didn't put in there wouldn't be found... why? I am... he was... just mixing the ink. I mean, think of it the other way: Mixing it to formula would make it pass any test, so what substances is he avoiding adding so as not to pass... those tests?
That being said... and again, I see you agree to some extent, there are "outliers". These would be "slightly unusual copper and zinc" (McCrone's words), a binder they could not identify, as it was not in their "library" of binders, including Gum Arabic, which is usual. They suggested testing the binder to learn what it actually is, even. And the Titanium Compound... which is unexplained as of yet. Over trace amounts it is highly unusual to find in any Medieval inks. The fact that all these remain unexplained means we don't yet know if they are suspicious, or not. I mean, without knowing what these are, and how they may have gotten in there, it would be wrong of me, or you, to assume that they are not important. But what we do know is that it is wrong to claim the Voynich's ink is without problems.
One more thing: The ink is actually worse than some inks made by some forgers, such as made and used by Mark Hoffmann, forger of several works, including the "Oath of a Freeman". That ink was apparently perfectly indistinguishable from genuine 17th century ink. In fact, it fooled McCrone himself! So here I see the argument that the Voynich ink is perfect, with no suspicions; yet the Voynich ink does have unexplained substances in it, while there are actual forgers inks with NONE, and which, while purer than the Voynich ink, still passed as genuine. So would it not then logically follow that the less pure Voynich ink should not be cleared on the basis of how pure it is, if the premise is that a forger would have made worse ink?
Quote:3) sewing structure: The flax cords and threads that bind the manuscript are authenticly medieval in style (with the exception, of course, of the threads added by Kraus' book conservator, which are clearly modern white thin thread, quite distinct from the original cords and thread). The sewing structure is a Gothic binding structure. The wormholes at the beginning and end tell us the manuscript had once been bound between wooden boards. The style of the limp-vellum covers is that used by the Jesuits in their nineteenth-century rebinding campaign. Again, how and why would someone fake all of that evidence, especially since, again, Voynich's clients wouldn't have known the difference?
Here you have left out several problems with the binding materials and methods, and also simply excused any anachronistic portions of that binding by assigning them to Kraus. I do not believe, however, that Kraus claimed to have had it rebound, first of all. Correct me if I am wrong, but that seems to be a convenient assumption, probably used to explain this find. Likewise, the later covers are explained by a Jesuit "rebinding campaign". I'm not sure how this is known to have been done, other than using the age of those covers to write an explanation for them. I see these as a common practice in the Voynich saga: If something is too new for it, say it was added later. But if it couldn't have been added later, then it is not what you think it is, you are mistaken.
This is to me different than usual scientific practice, in which we let what we find tell us what the object is. We don't dismiss inconvenient finds in order to maintain a desired outcome, or fill a pre-conception. If the materials, bindings, styles, content, and more, were all actually used to tell us what the Voynich is... if we actually listened to it... well, you know what I think that tells us.
But there are many more problems with the binding and its materials. I won't repeat them all here, but in my rebuttal to Rene's "NoFake" page... his complete argument for why the Voynich is not a fake... I wrote "Rebuttal to NoFake". In it I describe the actual finds, in Yale's own words, and how that actually describes a binding and construction with many anomalies and anachronisms. It covers... they cover... the points you made, above, and many more:
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Quote:4) Provenance evidence: There is no doubt that the evidence of the manuscript's history is largely circumstantial. Here's my rebuttal: So is the provenance for just about every single medieval manuscript in North America. The fact that the provenance is uncertain is not suspicious. If Voynich were trying to make a convincing fake, the smartest thing to do would have been to create a more convincing provenance, instead of making contradictory statements about his source. And what about that? Why would he make up so many different stories? Because he was an early twentieth-century rare-book dealer, and they were all cagey about provenance and their sources. Again, this neither surprises me nor makes me suspicious. It would have been more suspicious if he had laid out a crystal-clear chain of ownership.
Well we partially agree in the first part, but rather than "largely", I would say the case for provenance is 100% circumstantial. And you and I have had a discussion about the importance and meaning of provenance. As many do, I see a dichotomy of opinion as to its importance, something like, "Provenance does not matter, but here is the important provenance, which we defend". Also, as I explained to Rene, elsewhere in this thread, yes, generally, manuscripts may on the whole often lack provenance. BUT we are told that these Jesuits held it, in these places, in those libraries, protected by confiscation by these guy, hundreds of years after owned by Baresch, then Marci, and then, it was sent to Kircher.
So, this is not just any old provenance-less manuscript sitting in an unmarked box. If, as (strongly and frequently) claimed, it was in all these places, owned by all these people, and with books that DO have that provenance, and often, labels even.. and appear in lists and catalogs... then it shines a stark spotlight on the Voynich, supposedly cheek to jowl to binding with all those others, since for some reason, our Ugly Duckling avoided being likewise recorded. That is, the case is very different than all those unnamed orphan manuscripts, because of the insisted upon... 100% circumstantially created... provenance, while not sharing any of the same evidence of those others. That makes it a very different case, and very suspicious, to me. It is actually almost like it wasn't there with them in the first place, and anyway, there is zero evidence it was.
As for your case of "what Voynich should have done", I see this claim often. But the thing is, it is often spoken by those who accept the things that are... so that is proof, if fake, he did exactly the right things, no? In this case, that he "made contradictory statements about his source". Well which is it? Did he make bad statements which cast suspicion, as I contend they imply; or were they good enough to put people off his scent? It is another case where suspicious items, behavior, statements, W/E are dismissed because "a forger would have done better", while still defending those things as not suspicious in the first place; but then claiming anything one decides is done "right" is also evidence it is genuine (your "It would have been more suspicious if he had laid out a crystal-clear chain of ownership". No, if it had that, of course everyone would point out it was not suspicious... nobody would say, "Too perfect, might be a forgery". I know of no case of that. It is not both, to me: I feel we ought to accept suspicious behavior for what it is, "suspicious", and lack of suspicious behavior a sign that something might be real.
Quote:5) Earlier provenance: The Marci letter's wax stains line up perfectly with the wax stains inside the front cover. I know the counter-argument: What about the folding pattern? Indeed, that is a currently-unresolved question. The next time I am with the manuscript, I'll work with my own facsimile of the letter (from the Siloe edition) to see if I can resolve this. Stay tuned. And there are many reasons that could explain the letter being overlooked by the Jesuits - the manuscript was likely stored in one of the library collections for hundreds of years. If no one was looking at it, which seems likely, how would they have found the letter?
But Lisa, from everything I have seen, and many have pointedly noted, those wax stains (if that is what they are- have they been tested?) do NOT line up well at all, let alone "perfectly". I even saw someone note this recently, again, in this very thread.
I am glad you agree the "folding problem" is as of yet unexplained. You know I am the author of that discovery? And I would be interested in seeing the results of your experiences with the Siloe replica letter. But I did make an accurate representation of the letter, and a couple of others that were (supposedly) contemporary with it, and it was obvious to me that the 1665/66 Marci letter does not fold properly along the existing fold lines.
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But there is a whole host of problems, large and small, with that letter. These simply should not be. I mean, it is already not supposed to be there, for several reasons, but then it "happens" to not fold, and have "wrong" seal positions, and that bad Latin, a perfectly aligned (traced?) signature, a "5" turned into a "6", and then, it was supposedly noticed? And more? I mean, this idea that each problem with it might be kinda-sorta explained in some way or another, albeit not very satisfactorily... but remember, it has all these problems together! Like you, I have examined many thousands of era letters, myself... they do not have these problems. Why does this one? I think, the answer is clear... it is not real. But anyone new to this discussion, check out my blog post on the subject, in which I make my arguments: "The 1665/66 Marci Letter: A fake?": You are not allowed to view links.
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Quote:6) More provenance: There is significant provenance evidence on f. 1r. The Tepenecz signature is authentic and matches several of the signatures identified by Rene on his website. The Tepenecz inventory number "19" is not otherwise used in Tepenecz books. How would Voynich have known to use that number? Why would he then erase the signature only to pour sulfuric acid ("liver of sulfur," the likely reagent he used) all over it to make it visible, only to leave a permanent stain that then made the signature invisible again? Light-based techniques for reading faded oak-gall ink on parchment had not yet been invented, so why go to the trouble when no one would be able to read it?
Good point about the use of the "19", and I could only guess: Perhaps he had, at one time, the book that numbered signature came from? He cut up lots of books and covers, when he found them of little value. But your point just sparked a question, which maybe you can answer: Is there any rhyme or reason to Tepenecz's numbering system? I mean, could one determine a category, or acquisition date, or something, to the use of that number?
At any rate, when I found the "pre-treatment" You are not allowed to view links.
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Login to view. photograph (which others must have seen, long before me, and despite its importance, never mentioned?), it made it clear that the signature would have been visible to Voynich. So I can only guess, along with you, as to the reasons he would have messed around with it. And, I believe, his stories about why he did that, and how, varied. So, you and I and anyone can only speculate as to his motives. Did he try to erase it? Do we know that? I wondered, but never heard that we know he did.
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My thoughts on the "signature", first off all... I agree with Jan Hurych that the signature is fake. I link his paper to the first signature link, above. Secondly, I believe it is there because Voynich wanted to give the impression that the Cipher Ms. came from the Court of Rudolf II... which, many believe was the case, partly because of that signature. But I also think that, when he tried to switch to a Bacon authorship, he no longer needed it... until he concocted that whole Dee Fairy Tale to explain it... again. He knew the Dee story was fake, and that the book Arthur Dee had described as owned by his father was actually the Book of Dunston.
But the thing is, "if" he could not obliterate that signature, he would have had to explain it in some way. The Dee lie, along with a forged 1665/66 letter would do that... "place" the Voynich back into the Court again.
Not implausible, nor (I can hear the complaint forming) complicated. What is complicated is the tangle web of investigations, debates, and endless dead end trails which were woven by those two, simple acts: Place that signature, then point to a story to explain it, with that letter. Then, hope no one but Rich ever notices that Marci never mentioned that signature, EVEN though he was supposedly describing the possibility that the BOOK IT WAS WRITTEN ON ended up in the Court of Rudolf II. Sort of an important oversight, I think. Unless Marci never saw it to begin with...
"Origin of the Dee Myth" (man there are a lot of myths, and new ones every week!): You are not allowed to view links.
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Quote:7) More provenance: My own research identified the alphabets in the right-hand margin of f. 1r as having been written by Marci himself. Why would Voynich fake a second piece of provenance on f. 1r using Marci's handwriting, when it doesn't match the handwriting in the Marci letter? Rene identified that letter as actually having been written by Marci's secretary. The hand on f. 1r is Marci himself, not his secretary, identified in earlier letter he wrote himself. Again, why go to the trouble? Also, that ink has a different chemical profile in the McCrone report - recent XRF testing (not public yet) identified a zinc signature in those alphabets that marks it as NOT a medieval iron gall ink. Why would Voynich use a 17th-c. ink recipe to forge those alphabets and then ersae them, when tests to authenticate or debunk the ink wouldn't exist for another 80 years?
Well I have not yet studied your reasoning for believing that those letters are most definitely Marci's, first of all. I know that virtually every handwriting comparison is debatable to some degree. But even if it does match Marci's, as you suspect, isn't your theory that Marci had the manuscript in his possession? And if that was the assigned provenance by a forger, as I suspect was done here, wouldn't it be correct for a forger to add notations in the handwriting of one of the "desired" owners? This is and has been done all the time by forgers. But again, I don't necessarily accept that this is Marci's hand, I'm only pointing out that I don't see the problem for forgery if it is. And also, didn't Marci supposedly own the Voynich decades before the 1665/66 letter? Why would a forger write it in his secretaries hand, long before he (supposedly) needed said secretary? Of course he would try to copy the actual hand of Marci. As for, "Rene identified that letter as actually having been written by Marci's secretary", this is the danger of stating opinions as fact. To my knowledge, this is Rene's opinion, based on several assumptions by him and others, and used to explain away, in part, the bad hand of that letter. I don't believe, I mean, that Rene or anyone "identified" that that letter was written by a scribe, it is an assumption, speculation, based on a need to explain a problem, a difference, with that letter, as compared to his other letters... which, curiously, safe in the Carteggio, were not written by this (invented?) scribe.
As for the distinction you make with the ink, as being 17th century, rather than Medieval. But here is the thing: The main inks, and other inks, while (for the most part) proper for the early 15th century, are ALSO proper for the 17th. It would therefore be yours, and others, distinction between the inks. For me, finding a 17th century ink in a faux 17th century forgery would not be a surprise to me, I mean. And my answer for "why?" anyone would mix a 17th century ink formula for a faux 17th century forgery, I can only point out the there would be no reason for them to predict, nor care about the possibility, that any testing of that ink would reveal the ruse... they would simply... mix the formula for 17th century ink. I pointed this out before... I can't understand why people think this is an issue... as though, if the ink was forged, it "must have" detectable anomalies in it. No, it would be: Find old recipe, gather ingredients, mix ink.
As for the erasure... how do we know it is erased? Are there erasure marks? My understanding is that ink is removed from parchment by scraping, and scraping leaves marks. Are there marks? How do we know it is not faded, or worn? And that being said, I don't understand why, erasure, fading, or not, it is an issue of any sort?
Quote:8) Five scribes: Why would Voynich bother?
He needed help? Bored residents in the Franceshini "safe house"? Any reason for a genuine manscript to need multiple scribes would also apply to a forgery, no? It would not be a "bother", but a help.
Quote:9) Evidence of misbinding (my own forthcoming work): Why would Voynich bother?
I can't speak for others, but my hypothesis states that Voynich decided to change the authorship/ownership from Tepencz to Roger Bacon, for various reasons I outline. When he did so, he felt he needed to remove several pages which were too "un-Bacon-like", or too early 17th century-court-of-Rudolf-origin like. He left things he thought would still pass muster, like the crappy armadillo... and he was right! And as you know, many early experts still believed this was a late 16th, early 17th century work. I propose that what was removed was too obvious for him to leave in there.
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"I further propose that is was created first as a Jacob Horcicky botanical, which was meant to appear as though it was created in the Court of Rudolf II in the early 17th century, and as such was falsely “signed” by him. At some later point (by about 1910/11?), the intended author and time was changed to Roger Bacon and the 13th century, probably by removing many of the now missing pages (which may have run counter to a Roger Bacon claim). Sometime later, the 1666 Marci to Kircher letter was forged, in order to strengthen this new, intended, Bacon authorship."
Quote:10) Later additions: Why add later-style quire numbers and even-later-style folio numbers? Why add the inscriptions on 17r and 116v?
Remember, these things are "later additions" to anyone whose nexus is 1420... and so need to claim certain anachronisms were "added later". A forgery meant to look 17th century would have no such need.
I would point out about the marginalia: Marginalia is usually, almost always, readable. Why would this not be readable, and yet in a differnt hand and style and lettering? And why would the You are not allowed to view links.
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Login to view. marginalia, while in a different hand and style and content (which before McCrone was said to be added later, BTW) be written in the same ink as the main text? Was it a different scribe borrowing the inkwell of the Voyich author? No, I think these problems imply that this marginalia was added for "effect", so examiners would say, "Why [would a forger] add the inscriptions on 17r and 116v?". Forgers have many tricks up their sleeves, they do stuff like this all the time. Real marginalia would probably be readable, and in a different ink than the author.
And by the way, you may know my old theory that what I named the "Bird Glyph" on You are not allowed to view links.
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Login to view. is very similar in form and position to the "calderon", or paragraph marker, used in some New World post-Columbian herbals:
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Well interestingly, from one of those codices that has Voynichesque calderons, also has this marginalia:
Quote:11) Its uniqueness: Some argue that the very fact of its uniqueness and our thus-far inability to decipher it MUST mean its a fake. The argument falls apart as soon as you consider the numbers: only 5-10% of medieval manuscripts still exist today, and a tiny fraction of those have been catalogued, and an even tinier fraction have been digitized. There is a lot that doesn't exist anymore and there's alot out there still that is not known or studied. It may turn out to indeed be unique, but I don't find that a convincing argument for concluding it's a fake.
But Lisa, you have tried to cover both cases here, again: "If we don't find one like it, it does not mean there is not one like it, so it is real; but if we never find one like it, that does not matter, and does not prove it is fake".
And anyway, I do not know anyone, including me, who argues, "... that the very fact of its uniqueness and our thus-far inability to decipher it MUST mean its a fake." I mean, I would not use "MUST". What I would actually say is different, "The complete uniqueness means that those who believe it is genuine lack the supporting evidence of a like-manuscript".
I don't think uniqueness alone is a sign of forgery, not at all. There are plenty of unique things in the world that are absolutely real. And the same for the inability to decipher it: Well, not entirely. If it is indecipherable that would be, yes, obvious evidence of it being a forgery, because while most forgeries have meaning, the opposite is also true: Most nonsense creations are forgery... or art, or something else... but not, in this case, a genuine manuscript. Well, with a disclaimer, which many who feel it is genuine also hold, and that would be the case of an old nonsense work, meant to impress others of arcane, important knowledge, but not meant actually SAY anything. But I strongly believe it is not that, for... reasons.
Quote:And on and on.
It is one thing to forge a single document or painting, when all you are worrying about is the substrate and the inks/pigments. To forge an entire book, there are simply too many ways to go wrong: substrate, ink, pigments, sewing thread, binding, and provenance, must all be convincing and unassailable. There is absolutely nothing about any of those physical components that lends credence to the "modern forgery hypothesis." There's a reason why the Vinland Map was a forged map on a single sheet of authentic parchment, not a bound manuscript (the manuscript it is associated with was never suspect). There's a reason why the Spanish Forger painted on medieval parchment or wooden panels...when he tried to forge an entire manuscript (recently acquired by Harvard as an example of a forgery), the fake was so obvious that no one but an amateur collector could have been fooled by it. I saw it a few weeks ago - it is a laughable attempt.
It's unique, that's for sure. But again, if a forgery, it has and is fooling many, so it worked... long as it is. One of the great risks of discovery of a forgery is, as you point out, length. The longer you make it, the greater the risk. So what would be the way to avoid this? Make everything unidentifiable, so that nothing could directly compare to anything real, not well enough, anyway, to say it is really supposed to "be" that thing. That way, no chance of making an error. If it is meaningless, no chance of making a content error, either, as happened with many forgeries, including the Vinland Map.
So my answer to your point would be: The length is a factor deciding it's completely enigmatic nature, which, by design, gives safety, insulation, from possible detection through obvious and increasingly unavoidable errors.
Quote:I know that there are those among you who will now respond point-by-point to make your increasingly-complicated case. Until there is convincing scientific evidence identifying the manuscript as anything other than an authentic early fifteenth-century manuscript, you won't convince me. The case for forgery requires a truly implausible series of events. With each piece of the forgery argument, the improbabilities multiply. It is simply not plausible.
Well, to you of course. I find forgery the simplest, least complicated, most obvious and apparent answer, with a context which explains every speck of it. On the contrary, I find arguments for genuine need to be vastly complex, internally contrary, needing to selectively ignore and accept evidence of varying standards, and relies on massive amounts of "evidence" that has still not been found. It needs to apply mismatched standards in order to explain the content it needs to exist: A bad artist; a good artist. Accurate content to fit 1420; deemed inaccurate when it does not. It needs an honest Wilfrid here; a dishonest Wilfrid there. It needs to move the historical location of the manuscript around as forgery closes in on it, in its last known location. It needs to manipulate raw data to palpable results that fit the 1420 genuine preconception. It needs to ignore and make excuses for anachronisms and anomalies, stating anything "too new" was added; and if it could not be added, it simply is ignored, or not what it looks like.
I see it as a huge, complex massive set of convoluted excuses, all needed to "defend" the Voynich against a simple, obvious, conclusion: It is just a sloppily made, somewhat careless, inaccurate and whimsical fake. As I often say, I think that if it were found today, and not saddled with the archaic standards of acceptance of the early 20th century, it would have quickly been laughed off the stage of scholarly, literary examination.
Quote:What IS plausible is that the manuscript was created by an unknown community for an unknown purpose in the early 1400s, likely in Central Europe or Italy (based on the script, illustrative style, clothing, and zodiac). We don't really know where it was for the first few centuries, although the month names are a nice clue that it was in Western Europe at one point. In the 1600s, it appears in Prague (possibly - but not definitively) sold to Emperor Rudolf by Carl Widemann from Augsburg in 1599. In Prague, it passes to Tepenecz, Baresch, and Marci before being sent to Kircher in Rome in 1665. It stays with the Jesuits in various collections in Rome until Voynich buys it in 1912 and brings it to London and then to America. After he dies, it passes to Ethel, and from Ethel to Anne. Anne sells it to Kraus in 1961. Kraus spends a few years trying to sell it, but in the end gives up and donates it to Yale in 1968. The end.
Well, while I respect your opinion, and your right to state it, I strongly disagree this is the case for the reasons I give. It would be nice, it would be colorful, fun and exciting, all that... the castles, the travels, the noblemen, the secret formulas and cures... but I think it is nothing of the kind. It was meant to evoke all that, and in that, as poor a work as I think it is, it certainly does its job.
All the best, Rich