Old Czech (Bohemian) or Moravian

[ololololo]

The reason would be that writing in the Czech language (and not Latin or German or Old Church Slavonic) was something new and still under development. I'm assuming that the creators of the Voynich Manuscript were not linguistics experts and were going with what sounded right to them at the time.

You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view. was used in the territory of Great Moravia from 863. What could have been the reason to replace Glagolitic, which was a fairly commonly used Slavic script?