Old Polish (geoffreycaveney's theory)

[ReneZ]

Please note: There is a big difference between a Polish scholar saying that the totality of the output I produced does not make complete sense to him, which is understandable, and the claim that the output has no Polish or Slavic syntax or morphology whatsoever, which is a quite different claim made by Marco and not by the Polish scholar.

I'm afraid that the Polish scholar was much more clear than that.

How much evidence, advice can one completely ignore, and just keep on going?