29-09-2020, 07:16 PM
(29-09-2020, 01:44 PM)geoffreycaveney wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.If we read <béz bas> as "bez vas"
Is there good historical evidence for a /b/ --> /v/ sound change, or vice versa, in any West Slavic dialects since the middle ages? I'm aware this is a very common sound change and allophone pair, because they're produced at the same place of articulation. But does the /b/<-->/v/ variation apply specifically to the time period and language areas you're talking about here?