04-02-2018, 09:27 PM
Just thinking about it philosophically (i.e. without much knowledge of the statistics involved) I'd say that it's impossible to prove. The reason is that in this particular case the statements "it has no meaning" and "the meaning is unknown to us" have the same effect.
Let me think of an analogy. For example, you present me with a string of numbers, 22 15 25 14 9 3 8 0 14 9 14 10 1.
I could say "it's a random string of numbers". But I don't know whether this is true. Until I find a way to read the numbers in a way which makes sense, I have no way of proving whether the numbers are randomly chosen or not. I could only disprove it by pointing out what you encoded and how you did it.
Let me think of an analogy. For example, you present me with a string of numbers, 22 15 25 14 9 3 8 0 14 9 14 10 1.
I could say "it's a random string of numbers". But I don't know whether this is true. Until I find a way to read the numbers in a way which makes sense, I have no way of proving whether the numbers are randomly chosen or not. I could only disprove it by pointing out what you encoded and how you did it.