geoffreycaveney > 03-10-2020, 12:20 AM
(02-10-2020, 11:55 PM)RenegadeHealer Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.(02-10-2020, 09:01 PM)geoffreycaveney Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.As for the connection to the Czech orthographical reform of the same time period, I would rather say, at most, that the VM could have been inspired by the same general social atmosphere in the region that inspired the tumultuous period of Jan Hus's life and the aftermath of his execution in Bohemia in the early 15th century. The Hussite Wars were one of the greatest and most significant social upheavals in all of late medieval Europe. The new orthography was related to demands for ecclesiastical reform and greater popular access to religious and other literature written in the spoken vernacular language of the people rather than in Latin. This went hand in hand with demands for reforms reducing the power of the church hierarchy and the clergy.Thanks for that historical background, Geoffrey. It sounds like a similar reason for most spelling reforms I've heard of — a way to raise literacy levels and reduce errors and misunderstandings in written communication.
I brought this up when you were building your Judeo-Greek theory, but I'm reminded again of You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.. My understanding of the Arabic writing system is that it's written like cursive Roman letters are supposed to be written: you draw one continuous line for a word, and then add in dots and other marks. There are a number of consonants in Arabic that are distinguished only by dots or lack thereof. Apparently someone who reads a lot of Arabic can read a text that contains only the lines, not the dots, and can guess based on context which consonants are intended.
Was, or is, diacritic-free Czech a similar tradition, that's well historically attested over a long period of time? I guess what I'm asking is, was there a long time period between native Czech speakers beginning to write to each other in their native language (instead of Latin), and folks like Jan Hus realizing that extant attempts to write Czech with the Roman alphabet were too ambiguous for effective communication? The Greeks and Italians both eliminated most of their diacritics in 20th century language standardizations and spelling reforms, which were no longer needed for written comprehension. Could the Czechs do, or have done, something similar, with no ill effects?
geoffreycaveney > 04-10-2020, 03:02 AM
geoffreycaveney > 04-10-2020, 07:26 PM
(04-10-2020, 03:02 AM)geoffreycaveney Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.In case anyone is curious what a description of a Sorbian theory of the Voynich manuscript would look like, if the description itself were written in (Upper) Sorbian, here is an example:
"Waženy [*****],
"Pisam Wam, přetož [*****] je doporučił mi wobroćić so na Was z woprašenjom na tule wěc. Slědźu tajny rukopis Wojniča (Voynicha) a sym wotkrył někotre daty wo tym, zo móžnje je napisan serbskej reču. Mam wulki zajim čitać Waše komentary k mojemu slědźenju."
geoffreycaveney > 04-10-2020, 09:00 PM
geoffreycaveney > 07-10-2020, 06:23 AM
Ruby Novacna > 08-10-2020, 10:32 PM
(07-10-2020, 06:23 AM)geoffreycaveney Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.The glyph sequence "<pře>/<př>" fits well as forms of the West Slavic prepositions and prefixes "pře"...If prepositions and prefixes are involved, should they not be distributed evenly throughout the text of the manuscript?
geoffreycaveney > 08-10-2020, 11:41 PM
(08-10-2020, 10:32 PM)Ruby Novacna Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.(07-10-2020, 06:23 AM)geoffreycaveney Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.The glyph sequence "<pře>/<př>" fits well as forms of the West Slavic prepositions and prefixes "pře"...If prepositions and prefixes are involved, should they not be distributed evenly throughout the text of the manuscript?