Hello everyone,
I hate to start posting here on such a skeptical note, but I am hopeful that if we can refute the skepticism, perhaps it will give us new leads to investigate the actual language and meaning of the text, if any.
I want to state first and upfront that *I hope my following arguments are wrong*. I want this text to be meaningful, I want us to decipher it, I want us to be able to read it and understand it.
A bit about my experience working on this ms text: It would remind one of the Churchill quote about success being the ability to go from failure to failure without losing one's sense of enthusiasm, or the Niels Bohr quote about an expert being somebody who has already made every mistake it is possible to make in a given field. I feel that I am somewhere in that process, just without the success or expertise at the end.
Over the past several years, I have attempted to decipher the Voynich ms text as the following languages: Coptic, Old Irish, Old Norse, Elfdalian, Gutamal, Orsamal, Old Gutnish, Finnish, Old Prussian, Middle High German, Old Albanian, Syriac/Aramaic, and Hebrew. My favorite response from a scholar was the laconic, "The identification of the Voynich manuscript as an Orsamal document would be a truly revolutionary discovery." Classic. (For the record, I was trying to link the Voynich character inventory to a runic alphabet.)
Here is my conclusion, and my challenge to any other would-be Michael Ventris who wants to succeed in deciphering this ms text:
It is not enough to propose deciphering of individual isolated words and names and labels. It is not difficult to do that with a handful of isolated words and letter values for the characters in them. The problem is, if you then continue with the rest of the characters, and the letters in the alphabet of the target language, you will quickly run out of characters, and many consonants in your target language will go entirely unrepresented in the Voynich ms character text.
As a test, try expressing *one whole paragraph* in the text - any paragraph you like! - with your deciphering system. You will likely find that it comes out far too repetitive, with far too few letters repeated far too frequently, and far too many other letters missing entirely. It will not look like actual writing in an actual language at all.
Thus, I cannot take individual letter and word readings seriously, until I have seen what an entire paragraph looks like with the method. Based on my own experience, I can tell you that it probably won't look good.
The only way around this is to introduce ambiguity into one's system, by making one Voynich character represent multiple consonants of the target language, or by presuming substantial misspellings in the target language whereby the author used one letter to represent other similar letters, which amounts to the same thing. Then one has a different problem: if every character can be read as three different letters, then every 4-letter word can be read as 81 different words! It is hard to read such a text, and hard to have any confidence about any one particular reading of any word.
This is why, if the text does represent any language at all, I think it must be a vowelless abjad. There just aren't enough characters, nor enough variety of character combinations, for the Voynich inventory to incorporate both all the vowels and all the consonants of any language. Surely it was not an accident that John Stojko's purported deciphering into Ukrainian, had to make it a *vowelless* Ukrainian. And I can tell you, from experience again, that even with a vowelless abjad theory, it is *still* difficult to represent all consonants without introducing ambiguity into one's deciphering system!
I recently read the thread about "what the heck is an 'otaly'?" and the comments of several experienced researchers about the Voynich ms text as a "defective script". For the classic example of such a thing, look up "Book Pahlavi". Have fun trying to read anything in that script! Here's the problem: without knowing the historical context of the writings and texts and manuscripts and all of the historical cultural heritage surrounding them, *the Book Pahlavi texts would in fact be indistinguishable from random meaningless character strings*. In late Book Pahlavi, the "words" have effectively become the equivalent of logograms: you can only read them if you already know what the whole words are. Sounding out meaning from the letters is next to impossible. *If Book Pahlavi were unknown, and we only found one 200-page text of it from the medieval period, we would never be able to decipher it or read it.* No way. Even if we had full knowledge of the Middle Persian languages and all the Aramaic historical dialects that influenced it.
By the way, I think the question about "otaly" is also a very good point. It makes me question the significance of all of the labels throughout the ms, which is unfortunate. I followed up on the lead and took a look at all the pages where the "otaly" label appears. I look at the top row of labels on f88r, and see a group of small words that are far too short, and far too similar to each other, to represent distinct names or identifications of distinct plants or roots: "oral", "oraly", "oldar", "otoky", "otaly". This is not a set of plant names or parts; this is an elementary grammar book exercise of words that begin with "o", with very small and slight variation in the order of letters that follow it. As meaningful text labeling plants or parts or roots, it is hardly a plausible set of words at all; but *as glossolalia, it is a perfectly logical sequence*.
Likewise with the top row of labels on f99v: "otoldy", "otor(chy)", "oldy", "dar(ary)", "otaly", "olsy", "arol", "otoky". Very slightly more variation than f88r, but not much. The optimist in me wants to find similarities in the plants next to the two "otaly"s, and the two "otoky"s, and so on. The skeptic in me looks at the whole two rows of words and thinks, "These are just strings of similar syllables with slight variations."
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So there you have it: my arguments against the possibility of any plausible convincing interpretation of this text as actual language. Once again, I hope I am wrong. I have spent substantial effort trying to decipher this thing. I would love to be proven wrong, preferably by myself

Seriously, I would be very impressed and pleased if anyone produces a convincing deciphering that attains the support of reputable professional scholars of the given language. But I am skeptical, based on my own experience.
Consider on the other hand the following descriptions of the Voynich ms character text:
"[It] consists of using a certain number of consonants and vowels, in a limited number of syllables that in turn are organized into larger units that are taken apart and rearranged pseudogrammatically, with variations";
"[It] consists of strings of syllables, put together more or less haphazardly but emerging nevertheless as word-like and sentence-like units because of realistic, language-like [structure]".
This sounds like a more or less accurate description of the Voynich ms character text, does it not? I think anyone who has spent a substantial amount of effort researching this text will understand what I mean.
Alas, however, the above quotes are actually not descriptions of the Voynich ms: They are the linguist William Samarin's descriptions of Pentecostal spoken glossolalia in his landmark 1972 book on the subject. (Simply look up the Wikipedia page for "Glossolalia" to find all these quotes.)
Samarin concluded that this glossolalia is "only a facade of language", that it is "meaningless but phonologically structured human utterance, believed by the speaker to be a real language but bearing no systematic resemblance to any natural language, living or dead." He argues that the syllables are not organized into words, and that "it is neither internally organized nor systematically related to the world man perceives."
I repeat (qokeedy qokeedy qokeedy): I hope I am wrong. This is a depressing and disappointing argument I am making and conclusion I am suggesting. But we have to be honest with ourselves and compare the evidence we have for any meaningful language hypothesis of the Voynich ms, vs. the strength of the above glossolalic description of the Voynich ms.
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Now just in case I am wrong, as I hope I am, here are my few thoughts about the language of the text

Like I said above, if it *is* any language, I strongly believe a vowelless abjad script makes more sense than an alphabet with vowels. I repeat: surely it was not an accident that Stojko's Ukrainian "deciphering" was a *vowelless* Ukrainian. Again, if you disagree, please produce a complete correspondence key of all Voynich characters and all letters of any alphabet with vowels, and we'll see how any paragraph of the text comes out.
Recently I had liked my Aramaic hypothesis a lot. But I came to find that my transcription had too many ambiguities, leading to the problems that I describe above.
Hebrew is much more plausible, to be honest. There were substantial Jewish communities living throughout many parts of Europe in the early 15th century, including in northern Italy and nearby areas of southern central Europe. They did not speak Hebrew as an everyday colloquial language, but they read and wrote Hebrew quite regularly and well, and not just as a liturgical language either. There is a substantial variety of literature written in medieval Hebrew in Europe. D.N. O'Donovan's "Voynich Revisionist" website had an interesting recent article about possible connections to Kabbalah in the Voynich ms and Panofsky's old comments about the topic. I think all of this makes a certain amount of sense. A few years ago The Guardian published an article about Stephen Skinner's view that a Jewish physician in 15th c. Italy wrote the ms, based purely on all of the illustrations.
But I have found that my hypothesis still runs into plenty of problems as soon as I start to try to decipher the text of actual sentences and paragraphs. (Again, the Pleiades and Zodiac labels and other labels are nice to generate hypotheses for letter values of characters. But the proof of the pudding is in the paragraphs.) Here's one idea: rather than each character being a letter, perhaps each pair of characters is one letter. Now you would think, with 15-25 Voynich characters, that you would get an inventory of many hundreds of character pairs or bigrams. But not so! The character text of this ms is so repetitive, with so little and narrow variation, that if you divide the words into the most natural and common bigrams, of course allowing for the odd final "-y" or initial "d-" or "q-" or medial "e" or "i" to occur by itself and not as part of a bigram, then amazingly you only find about *20* or so, yes only TWENTY or so, *bigrams* that occur with any substantial frequency! In fact, as I have tried to pair Voynich *bigrams* with Hebrew *letters*, amazingly I find that I do not run out of Hebrew letters to correspond to the bigrams, I *run out of Voynich bigrams* to correspond to the Hebrew *letters*! Yes you read that right, this ms does not even contain enough frequent *bigrams* to represent a complete abjad without any vowels.
Nevertheless, such a bigram inventory seems to come far *closer* to being capable of representing a language's full abjad or alphabet, than any single character inventory theory that I've ever tried or ever seen. With bigrams, I have issues with a couple or few letters of an abjad. Whereas with single characters and an alphabet, one has issues with substantial portions of any language's consonant inventory.
Of course bigrams have their problems too. The "words" are only half as long as they appear to be. So in this case it really must be a vowelless abjad, as with vowels written no language's words could be this short, even if we take the Voynich words as syllables and take the liberty of joining two of them to make an actual word. For example, returning to "otaly" again, which really is an excellent test case to bring up in many ways, with my bigram theory we only have two letters here plus a probably low-information generic ubiquitous single character ending "-y". And this 2-3 letter word has to represent both plant/root labels, as well as the nymphs in four of the Zodiac sign diagrams. Now it could just be a day number or name that recurs in multiple months (like "15th" or "Ides"), which happens to be a homonym with a plant/root name that appears on two different pharmacological pages. Indeed there are a *lot* of homonyms in an abjad when you don't mark the vowel diacritics. Still, I admit there's not a lot of information in such a word if it is composed of bigrams.
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In sum, I think the Hebrew vowelless abjad bigram hypothesis I just presented above is as good as any other hypothesis that's out there, if not better. But I cannot honestly say that it is more convincing than the glossolalia hypothesis!
The poker pro Mike Caro told a funny story about a student of his, a middle-aged man who was a really bad poker player. Caro recounts that the man used to lose $25,000 a year playing poker. With the help of Caro's poker lessons, the man improved so much that he only lost $5,000 a year playing poker. But Caro had to admit, the man's wife had an even better financial strategy for him: quit playing poker! Caro could help him a lot, but not enough to be better than quitting.
I get the feeling that my hypothesis, and all of our best hypotheses, are like Caro's poker lessons, and the Voynich ms is the unfortunate man: our best theories can seem to have the potential to reduce the level of opacity of the text significantly. But the glossolalia / meaningless nonsense hypothesis is like the wife's advice: it may not be fun or interesting, but it's probably better than anything we've been able to come up with so far.
I have no desire to quit trying to decipher the Voynich manuscript. But I try to keep in the front of my mind the realistic probability that it may well just all be elegantly written meaningless nonsense.
I sure do hope that I myself and others here can refute my arguments and prove myself wrong!
-Geoffrey Caveney