Mainly for people who have heard about bathing literature and the 'Salernitan' school but not seen much of the texts.
In about c.1474, a work credited to Arnauld of Villanova is known as the
Salernitan Rule of Health (often called 'Flos medicinae' or 'Lilium medicinae' ) and has a bit about bathing in it. An early print edition of the Latin text, entitled
Regimen sanitatis ad regem Aragonum is available (You are not allowed to view links.
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This
Regimen... is supposed to be that of the Salerno Medical School but in the parallel translation, at least, the paragraph about bathing is preceded by a curious paragraph about coffee - "curious" because in 1474 coffee wasn't called coffee yet and was unknown in Europe. A parallel translation of that paragraph (You are not allowed to view links.
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In about the thirteenth century coffee was being drunk in the Yemen as stimulant, much as
soma (ephedra) had earlier been used around the border of Persia and northern India; but it would be fully four hundred years more until coffee was used in Europe - according to the
Cambridge World History of Food (Vol.2).
Quoting the
Oxford English Dictionary , the wiki article says:
Quote:The word "coffee" entered the English language in 1582 via the Dutch koffie,You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view. borrowed from the You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view. kahve, in turn borrowed from the You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view. qahwah (قهوة).
So what does that imply about the source and date for the work attributed to Villanova, and for the same work's 'bathing' section?
It's easy to think of excuses/reasons/theories.. e.g.
*the nineteenth-century translator misread/misunderstood the Latin; * the coffee paragraph was interpolated from Rhazes (not so likely because he called it
bunchum which a Latin of Europe wouldn't have known meant coffee, even in 1474); *the coffee paragraph was included by Arnaud on the advice of immigrants who had come from somewhere a good deal further to the east than Salerno;
The last is certainly posssible, given a number of other works (including the Vms) which reveal a line of transmission between the Yemen and Spain or southern France.
But then, if an east-to-west transmission might (maybe) bring knowledge of coffee westwards by 1474 - if the paragraph is original - then should be suppose the same for the 'ladies'?
Does that mean the word 'coffee' was known to Arnauld? Really?
Here's the bathing section of the work - not much to it.