At the time of the Voynich MS creation, would V/U generally be considered the same character? How likely is it that the encoding would use different mappings for V/U (also, similar question for J/I)?
As far as I understand from the internet, the clear separation of V/U and I/J started to emerge around the XV-XVI centuries, finalizing in the XVII century, so the Voynich MS plaintext, if it is European and uses Latin characters, was somewhat more likely spelled using the same character for V/U and I/J, but it could be either way. Is my understanding correct?
I've checked a few cipher tables from Tranchedino's collection, they seem to only use I and either V or U.
As far as I understand from the internet, the clear separation of V/U and I/J started to emerge around the XV-XVI centuries, finalizing in the XVII century, so the Voynich MS plaintext, if it is European and uses Latin characters, was somewhat more likely spelled using the same character for V/U and I/J, but it could be either way. Is my understanding correct?
I've checked a few cipher tables from Tranchedino's collection, they seem to only use I and either V or U.