08-03-2024, 03:09 PM
(This post was last modified: 08-03-2024, 03:14 PM by Aga Tentakulus.)
Interesting, thank you.
I just read something about the aristocratic title "Tepenece".
If he only got the title of nobility around 1608, and "Tepenece" is in the VM, I would assume that he signed it after 1608.
It is possible that it came to the Jesuits with the estate.
But still, how did the book get to the north? Also via the Jesuits? Did it only make one round trip? It looks like there was a close connection.
Just read it in the preliminary discussion.
You came to the same conclusion.
I've only just seen it.
I just read something about the aristocratic title "Tepenece".
If he only got the title of nobility around 1608, and "Tepenece" is in the VM, I would assume that he signed it after 1608.
It is possible that it came to the Jesuits with the estate.
But still, how did the book get to the north? Also via the Jesuits? Did it only make one round trip? It looks like there was a close connection.
Just read it in the preliminary discussion.
You came to the same conclusion.
I've only just seen it.