24-06-2022, 06:39 AM
I am learning the rules of vowel contraction in ancient Greek, to understand why the present tense infinitive endings are different: -ein, -oun or an. I learned that contraction is not used by all authors and in all dialects.
How can we be sure that our scribes applied the same rules of grammar?
How can we be sure that our scribes applied the same rules of grammar?

