f17r

[nablator]

Could it make any sense to use the infinitive "aller" ("to go") as the second word in such a statement? If so, what kind of statement could that be?

Not really. There isn't a straightforward explanation that would make a sentence in any language anyway...

The tortured, uneven script is also puzzling, and the weird elements, the k (or l ?), the "c3" / "cz" + macron that doesn't exist anywhere else.

In Latin manuscripts I've seen -cet endings written c3 but -cent was never written c3 + macron.