25-10-2019, 10:58 AM
Everything I have now read about word frequency, seek an explanation where it needs no explanation.
Since I have read the books from the 1400 century correctly, it is also clear to me that the word frequency is absolutely normal. From today's point of view one would reduce a whole page to five lines. The result of the text of one page = "2 spoons sugar in tea".
After reading 10 pages, I can already predict 80% of what comes on pages 11 and 12.
This seems a bit weird, but the VM on the 14th century spelling is almost 1 to 1.
Since I have read the books from the 1400 century correctly, it is also clear to me that the word frequency is absolutely normal. From today's point of view one would reduce a whole page to five lines. The result of the text of one page = "2 spoons sugar in tea".
After reading 10 pages, I can already predict 80% of what comes on pages 11 and 12.
This seems a bit weird, but the VM on the 14th century spelling is almost 1 to 1.

