Splitting word across lines

[Common_Man]

I also have the idea that word splitting was fully avoided, since the Voynich writer might've been unaware of the "sentences" idea but was more familiar with the "one line conveys one idea" kindof thing.. No evidence to substantiate though

When were full stops introduced in different parts of the world? I know it should've been a lot earlier than the 15th century date we've got, but still it seems a plausible theory.

Edit - 3rd century BC.. No idea why this has no punctuations..