23-02-2017, 03:08 PM
Another big problem I have with the idea that the text is something "artificial" in any way is that many of the salient properties of the text, such as restricted phonotactic structure and extensive use of reduplication, are found in many languages of the world, but not in Europe. So did a 15th century European somehow just intuitively know that such languages could exist without having actually seen one?

