(09-07-2026, 02:20 PM)bi3mw Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.I'd be interested to know whether the use of zeros and ones was common in Europe during the late Middle Ages, or whether it was introduced only by mathematicians like von Gmunden. Does anyone know anything about this?
I remember a letter in Kircher's Carteggio (from the 1600s) where a Cardinal friend of his explains to him the binary number system as if it were a novelty. So it maybe was hardly common knowledge in the 1400s.
The novelty of the Arabic number system was not the fact that it expressed a number as the sum of powers of 10 times digits 1 to 9. The Etrusco-Roman number system already did that. It was not even using a single symbol for each digit 1-9. The Greek number system already did that.
The novelty was using the same symbols for the 9 digits in any position, which required a zero symbol to make the position unambiguous. (The Babylonians and Mayans already did that, but using other bases; and one had been forgotten for many centuries, and the other would not be known in Europe for many centuries to come.)
Thus the adoption of the Arabic number system by Europeans in the late Middle Ages did not automatically suggest to them that one could use other bases, like 2. The base was still 10 as they had been using since the finger-counting days.
Some people may have figured it out, but it probably seemed to them to be just a curiosity, like it apparently did to that Cardinal.
The English measurements of liquid volume are a base-2 system, which apparently developed between the 13th and 15th centuries. However its use has been limited to measuring liquids, not numbers in general. It also uses specific names for each position (gallon, pottle, quart, pint, etc.) so that it spans only a small range of values; and it has no symbolic notation like true binary. People would surely say "five pints" rather than "one pottle, no quarts, and one pint".
All the best, --stolfi