(9 hours ago)Kaybo Wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.How can that be explained? Is every line the start of a new sentence? But how to fill the line that you have such a smooth ending? Or does the text maybe contain filler words at the start and the end? Or words that starts the coding of a line?
What are your thoughts and ideas about that?
There are a few possible explanations:
1.) the text is meaningless and the author is using filler words, which would be easy if the entire text is filler words. However, the "meaningless" interpretation has its own logical inconsistencies that make it, in my opinion unlikely.
2.) the text is "partially meaningless", as in, there are SOME filler words they use to round out a sentence/line. Again, seems hard to believe the text is only partially meaningful. Would make sense with "glossolalia" interpretations. Which again I think are unlikely given a variety of inconsistencies with other things we know
3.) the text is meaningful, and each line really is a sentence/complete thought.
There are a few categories of this:
3a.) the text is copied from an earlier script, and that earlier script was designed/reworded specifically to have every line act as a functional unit/sentence. This is logically consistent with much of what we know about the manuscript, especially with those who posit it's copied from an earlier text
3b.) the text was written in a stream of consciousness manner, but some property of the script/language/constructed language, allows for the enhanced ability for the author to estimate the exact space they will need to compose a sentence, and for reasons unknown, they had a strong preference and ability to write 1 sentence per line. This one would be quite extraordinary if it were the case, but in theory possible with constructed language hypotheses, if the constructed language has characteristics which allow for this sort of "on the spot estimation" of the space they need to finish up a thought. If this were the case, it may imply the text/meaning is much denser than previously imagined, since longer thoughts/sentences are easier to estimate the exact space you need.
Besides these options, it's quite hard to imagine any explanation which fits what we see in the manuscript. If text flowed from one line to the next, without lines acting as natural sentence enders/break points, it's really quite hard to imagine how that would work. Would words that end sentences act as a "\n" newline character, but only sometimes? That really doesn't make sense.
Of course there could be another explanation we haven't thought of, but most likely, given the abundance of evidence we have that the text is meaningful, it's probably 3a or 3b if I had to guess. My money being on 3b for a variety of reasons.