The evolution of P/F vs T/K raises important questions

[Jorge_Stolfi]

Then you would say that, in this example too, ["cc"] is an ‘a’.

Yes, I can read some Latin words:

• ...sabbati quę[ę=?] lucercit[?] in primā[=primam] sabbati.́ Uenit marja magdalenę et altera marja.́ uidere sepulchrum; Et ecce terremotus.́ factus ē[=est?] mag...
  

The beginning is from Matthew's Gospel

• 1. [In the end of the] sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
  
• 2. And, behold, there was a great earthquake...
  

By the way, in that handwriting "ri" is written like the "y" of the last Michiton line, "t" is like an "a" with a ligature, "g" looks like a "3" extending below the baseline, also with a ligature, etc.  The ".́" (a dot with a long acute accent) means a comma, while ";" seems to be a sentence period or verse separator.

All the best, --stolfi