19-12-2025, 07:08 PM
Yes, I know that the limited alphabet and strict rules of order are the real problem—that's precisely why I didn't suggest “Bavarian plain text.”
What prompted me to ask the question is something much simpler and probably more boring:
If you reduce spoken Bavarian (or the Upper German dialect) to what actually has meaning in fast, informal speech, surprisingly few sounds remain. Endings disappear, vowels become blurred, and much of the information is conveyed by position and repetition rather than by fully articulated words.
My question was not “Is this written in Bavarian?” but rather:
Is it really necessary to assume an East Asian phonological background to explain the degree of compression we see, or could a European language tradition, once aggressively reduced and then encoded, lead to a similar alphabet size? If it was then used schematically, wouldn't this result in structures similar to those in VN`?
Unfortunately, I don't speak Chinese at all and don't have an overview of how the language (and its phonological transcription) works in detail – which is precisely why I'm asking the question here. If the comparison is nonsensical from a linguistic point of view or fails due to clear facts, I will of course accept that.
What prompted me to ask the question is something much simpler and probably more boring:
If you reduce spoken Bavarian (or the Upper German dialect) to what actually has meaning in fast, informal speech, surprisingly few sounds remain. Endings disappear, vowels become blurred, and much of the information is conveyed by position and repetition rather than by fully articulated words.
My question was not “Is this written in Bavarian?” but rather:
Is it really necessary to assume an East Asian phonological background to explain the degree of compression we see, or could a European language tradition, once aggressively reduced and then encoded, lead to a similar alphabet size? If it was then used schematically, wouldn't this result in structures similar to those in VN`?
Unfortunately, I don't speak Chinese at all and don't have an overview of how the language (and its phonological transcription) works in detail – which is precisely why I'm asking the question here. If the comparison is nonsensical from a linguistic point of view or fails due to clear facts, I will of course accept that.