So I can assume that punctuation was rarely used in manuscripts (not in printed works) ? The different meaning of punctuation in (late) medieval works compared to modern works also seems to be proven ( see links ). This varied not only over time, but also from manuscript to manuscript. There was no uniform punctuation.
A comparison with the VMS (based on frequency) is therefore hardly possible. One would have to take into account the circumstances described, which would probably be very difficult to realize.
A comparison with the VMS (based on frequency) is therefore hardly possible. One would have to take into account the circumstances described, which would probably be very difficult to realize.