30-04-2022, 09:27 PM
To carry on with my previous thought, I find it strange that 5(?) different scribes all used the same technique to write out the manuscript. Why justify in this fashion if there is no visual border delineating the margins?
![[Image: image.jpg?ref=f19r&q=f19r-156-204-983-574]](https://voynich.ninja/extractor/image.jpg?ref=f19r&q=f19r-156-204-983-574)
Why go to so much trouble to align the left and right margins but not bother to rule in between? In the example above, second line last glyph has been compressed to fit in.
Unless you argue that this is some sort of steganography (which I don't), then I assume this is simply the way they were trained to write.
Why go to so much trouble to align the left and right margins but not bother to rule in between? In the example above, second line last glyph has been compressed to fit in.
Unless you argue that this is some sort of steganography (which I don't), then I assume this is simply the way they were trained to write.