18-08-2026, 04:34 PM
Why are these manuscripts not well understood? It seems as if they were not encoded to the same level of Voynich.
In theory we should be able to read them? Or read any one of the many similar manuscripts, that have been written in Latin or such. When/ where over the hundreds of years, someone should have been able to make sense of most of it - and by extension - others like it?
In theory we should be able to read them? Or read any one of the many similar manuscripts, that have been written in Latin or such. When/ where over the hundreds of years, someone should have been able to make sense of most of it - and by extension - others like it?