08-08-2021, 10:13 PM
Suppose that the plain text character sequence P1...Pn maps to the Voynichese character sequence V1...Vm, where n and m are 1 or more.
Suppose that, likewise, another plain text sequence P'1...P'x maps to another Voynichese sequence V'1...V'y.
Would then one expect P1...PnP'1...P'x map to V1...VmV'1...V'y? Or is there anything in the observable properties of Voynichese that would immediately preclude that?
Suppose that, likewise, another plain text sequence P'1...P'x maps to another Voynichese sequence V'1...V'y.
Would then one expect P1...PnP'1...P'x map to V1...VmV'1...V'y? Or is there anything in the observable properties of Voynichese that would immediately preclude that?