02-11-2016, 08:46 PM
Similarities between certain Voynich glyphs and alchemical notation have been noted by many researchers. But this may be a red herring - let's consider this for a minute.
First off, we need to consider dates.
A lot of this alchemical notation was invented post 16th century - it's Renaissance stuff. It wouldn't necessarily have been around in the 15th century.
Of course, that doesn't mean there isn't an overlap. The manuscript may not be 15th century - it could have been written in the early Renaissance, for if we accept the Rudolph II provenance then we have a terminus ante quem of around 1550 (or maybe later if we look up the date that the language teacher whose name I can't spell left Rudolph's staff - actually, have we ever had a proper debate about this? No, don't post here, I put a different thread on this subject).
So any alchemical notation that we find that is post-1550 must be considered derivative of the influences of this MS, and cannot be a source. We should bear this in mind when presenting such findings.
So to argue that the VM glyphs are derivatives of alchemical symbols, we must fit two givens into our arguments:
Which means what?
Well, I'm not going to go further down this path for the minute, as I want people to think about what I've just said, and consider the question: If this is an invented alphabet, what were the influences of the scribe?
IE, where did he get his shapes from?
And the reason this question is important, is because: if he got them from alchemical manuscripts, then he was probably involved in that world with all the resulting importance for the pictures. But if he got them from astronomical manuscripts, then the pictures will have a different interpretation. And if he got them from a medical background, we have a third interpretation for the pictures. Etc. And what's more, we can narrow this down a bit, because pre-1550 we have far fewer sources than post-1600.
First off, we need to consider dates.
A lot of this alchemical notation was invented post 16th century - it's Renaissance stuff. It wouldn't necessarily have been around in the 15th century.
Of course, that doesn't mean there isn't an overlap. The manuscript may not be 15th century - it could have been written in the early Renaissance, for if we accept the Rudolph II provenance then we have a terminus ante quem of around 1550 (or maybe later if we look up the date that the language teacher whose name I can't spell left Rudolph's staff - actually, have we ever had a proper debate about this? No, don't post here, I put a different thread on this subject).
So any alchemical notation that we find that is post-1550 must be considered derivative of the influences of this MS, and cannot be a source. We should bear this in mind when presenting such findings.
So to argue that the VM glyphs are derivatives of alchemical symbols, we must fit two givens into our arguments:
- The symbols presented must be pre-1550
- The symbols presented must have been in general circulation (for if they are unique to a certain author, then what we are essentially arguing is that that author must have had some influence on the scribe, for how else would he have seen them?)
Which means what?
Well, I'm not going to go further down this path for the minute, as I want people to think about what I've just said, and consider the question: If this is an invented alphabet, what were the influences of the scribe?
IE, where did he get his shapes from?
And the reason this question is important, is because: if he got them from alchemical manuscripts, then he was probably involved in that world with all the resulting importance for the pictures. But if he got them from astronomical manuscripts, then the pictures will have a different interpretation. And if he got them from a medical background, we have a third interpretation for the pictures. Etc. And what's more, we can narrow this down a bit, because pre-1550 we have far fewer sources than post-1600.